A 20 year old woman complains of skin problems and is noted to have erythematous papules on her face with blackheads (open comedones) and whiteheads (closed comedones). She has also had cystic lesions. She is prescribed a topical tretinoin (Retin-A), but without a totally acceptable result.
Which of the following is correct?
a. Intralesional triamcinolone should be avoided due to its systemic effects
b. Systemically administered isotretinoin therapy cannot be considered unless concomitant contraceptive therapy is provided
c. Antimicrobial therapy is of no value since bacteria are not part of the pathogenesis of the process
d. Isotretinoin is without important side effects as long as it is not used in sexually active women